In reply to a post by yarwell:

On the one hand Ofcom have finally stated

they didn't say that, did they ? The word "inherited" for example is not in the OFCOM WLA document.

The democratically elected Govt of the day sold off something nearly 30 years ago that BT now owns, giving it the same advantage as Virgin Media has with its network.

Unless this site is misquoting ofcom........
http://www.thinkbroadband.com/news/i/4191.html

my concern is are they going to drag the FTTC retail prices down to the silly level adsl prices are at, if they do that then FTTC will be aweful. The usual 80kbit'ish allocated per end user etc.

In reply to a post by Chrysalis:

my concern is are they going to drag the FTTC retail prices down to the silly level adsl prices are at, if they do that then FTTC will be aweful. The usual 80kbit'ish allocated per end user etc.

BT networks unable to handle demand...... Surely not

The article does NOT quote Ofcom as using the word inherited, it appears to be a word John has used.

If it was a quote it would follow our usual quote style

In reply to a post by MrSaffron:

The article does NOT quote Ofcom as using the word inherited, it appears to be a word John has used.

If it was a quote it would follow our usual quote style

The story says.....
"Ofcom estimate that deploying the passive infrastructure based around ducts and poles to deploy next-generation access accounts for around 50-70%, and the network that BT inherited as the incumbent operator gives it a significant competitive advantage."

Have ofcom estimated the 50-70% figure or not?

Have ofcom concluded BT have an competitive advantage or not?

Did BT inherit the network or not?

If the answer is NO to all that, then why does it say that is Ofcom estimation?

Is it OFCOMS ESTIMATION or JOHNS?

The figures will be Ofcom's but the wording used may not be the exact words Ofcom used, I am on a train and do not have the time to chase up with research on Ofcom site.

If you cannot differentiate between quotes (hint we use "" around them, or put them in a quote section) and someone re-wording a release then you must have serious problems with newspapers.

The significant advantage, is a matter for the record e.g. Market 3 definition says this basically

In reply to a post by MrSaffron:

The figures will be Ofcom's but the wording used may not be the exact words Ofcom used, I am on a train and do not have the time to chase up with research on Ofcom site.

If you cannot differentiate between quotes (hint we use "" around them, or put them in a quote section) and someone re-wording a release then you must have serious problems with newspapers.

The significant advantage, is a matter for the record e.g. Market 3 definition says this basically

When a story states "Ofcom estimate that...." I assume what follows is OFCOMs estimation and not the writers.

If it was the writers estimation writing "I estimate that....." would be the correct thing to state, wouldnt it?

Oh and i dont appreciate the sly newspaper insult. If i had said that to remark to another user you would be all over my case, as you have in the past when i have made sly remarks about a persons intellect. Do try to practice what you preach and as staff set an example.

The article says that ofcom did the estimation. However, it doesn't say that ofcom used the word "inherited" which was your question. So, it isn't a quote. It is a commentary. The wording is the authors but that doesn't change the fact that the estimation is ofcoms.

Edited by ian72 (Thu 25-Mar-10 08:45:28)

In reply to a post by ian72:

The article says that ofcom did the estimation. However, it doesn't say that ofcom used the word "inherited" which was your question. So, it isn't a quote. It is a commentary. The wording is the authors but that doesn't change the fact that the estimation is ofcoms.

That makes no sense at all...
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/estimation
judgment or opinion

So is it Ofcoms judgement/opinion and therefore estimation BT "inherited" the network or not?

If its just the authors words, he shouldnt had said its someone elses "estimation"

quote""Ofcom estimate that deploying the passive infrastructure based around ducts and poles to deploy next-generation access accounts for around 50-70%, and the network that BT inherited as the incumbent operator gives it a significant competitive advantage."

It doesnt say "and I estimate" it is written as one continuos judgement/estimate from ofcom.

Is it ofcoms opinion or not?

If its not their opinion they inherited a network and have competitive advantage why did the author say that it is ofcoms opinion?

Maybe i cant read a newspaper properly, or spot "quote" marks...... But i sure as heck know the meaning of words and when another parties opinion is being stated. Its either ofcoms opinion and judgement or it isnt.

Judgement... The forming of an opinion, estimate, notion, or conclusion, as from circumstances presented.

I trust for us to know Ofcoms opinion, estimation, judgement they would have to "SAY" or "WRITE" it, unless both them and the writer of the story are telepathic?

Good try by BT defenders again though "SIGH" (quote me on that LOL)

Edited by deleted (Thu 25-Mar-10 14:22:55)

It is a FACT that BT inherited the network, who says they did not?

If so where did they get it, a pixie at the bottom of the garden? The money shareholders gave in exchange for shares was the government of the times condition in giving BT the network.

This Ofcom feels gives them significant advantages, if Ofcom felt it did not they why bother with the consulation on wholesale access at all.

The consultation is there to assess what other comms providers feel, i.e. is Ofcom barking up the right or wrong tree.